[GRLUG] {Disarmed} Re: Host numbering on an IPv4 network

[Joseph Workman]

I don't think it has to do with "customs" it has to do with the RFC's
Defining IP usage.
I don't even think most OS will allow you to configure it a .0 host in most
case.

Out of curiosity why would you want to ?

On Thu, Mar 3, 2011 at 6:22 PM, Michael Mol <mikemol at gmail.com> wrote:

> Let's say I have a network of 192.168.0.0/16
>
> I'm very accustomed to seeing the first machine on a network being
> numbered with the *second* address on the network. I've been told that
> it's customary for the first IP address on the network to be reserved
> to identify the network, and that all hosts should have subsequent
> IPs.
>
> So the first machine (and router) on my 192.168.0.1, because
> 192.168.0.0 is reserved for identifying my network. Is that correct
> and good form? Is it poor form to use 192.168.0.0 as the IP of the
> router?
>
> I ask because my actual scenario is closer to 192.168.77.128/28. A /28
> netmask leaves me with 16 valid IPs for that subnet.
>
> (I'm working within a /24, and I divided it into /28s which I can
> segregate by role. This /28 is for wifi. I've got another for the
> wired LAN, I'll probably have another in the future for VMS which need
> to have their own segregation considerations, and I might use another
> in the future for a specific small VPN case. I don't want to migrate
> elsewhere under 192.168.0.0/16, or over to 10.0.0.0/8, or over to
> 172.16/12, for reasons I don't want to discuss. :) )
>
> --
> :wq
>
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-- 
Joseph Workman
C.616.734.1411

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